It is a standard fact from elementary complex analysis that a holomorphic function $f:\mathbb{C}\to \mathbb{C}$ is a conformal mapping. Now, suppose I have a map $f':\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}^2$ which is a conformal mapping of the plane onto itself. Write $$f'(x,y) = (f_1(x,y),f_2(x,y)).$$ Is $f_1 + if_2$ holomorphic?
Take the 2minute tour
×
MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If we define $f' : \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$ by $f'(x,y) = (x, y)$, then it is conformal, but the corresponding map $f_1 + i f_2$ is not holomorphic. 

