-1

If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.

flag
5 
 The short answer to the question is no. As it stands, the question is either trivial or too vague and unfocused to be appropriate to MO. Voting to close. – Timothy Chow Feb 24 2012 at 16:04
Please read mathoverflow.net/howtoask and mathoverflow.net/faq. One of the requirements to ask a good question is that you put a lot of thought into it yourself, and make that effort clear. I vote to close. – Theo Johnson-Freyd Feb 24 2012 at 16:48

closed as not a real question by Timothy Chow, Emil Jeřábek, Theo Johnson-Freyd, Andreas Blass, Angelo Feb 24 2012 at 17:20

1 Answer

7

No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse.

link|flag
I will try to read the book. – Jamahl Peavey Feb 24 2012 at 20:43

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.