If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.
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closed as not a real question by Timothy Chow, Emil Jeřábek, Theo JohnsonFreyd, Andreas Blass, Angelo Feb 24 '12 at 17:20
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No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse. 

