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If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.

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closed as not a real question by Timothy Chow, Emil Jeřábek, Theo Johnson-Freyd, Andreas Blass, Angelo Feb 24 '12 at 17:20

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

The short answer to the question is no. As it stands, the question is either trivial or too vague and unfocused to be appropriate to MO. Voting to close. –  Timothy Chow Feb 24 '12 at 16:04
Please read mathoverflow.net/howtoask and mathoverflow.net/faq. One of the requirements to ask a good question is that you put a lot of thought into it yourself, and make that effort clear. I vote to close. –  Theo Johnson-Freyd Feb 24 '12 at 16:48
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1 Answer 1

up vote 7 down vote accepted

No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse.

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I will try to read the book. –  Jamahl Peavey Feb 24 '12 at 20:43
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