If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.
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closed as not a real question by Timothy Chow, Emil Jeřábek, Theo JohnsonFreyd, Andreas Blass, Angelo Feb 24 '12 at 17:20It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question. 


No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse. 

