Suppose $f:X\to Y$ is a flat morphism of schemes. If $X$ is smooth at $x$, must $Y$ be smooth at $f(x)$?

If $f$ is locally finitely presented, then it is open (using EGA IV 1.10.4), so after replacing $Y$ by $f(X)$, we can assume $f$ is faithfully flat. I'd be happy to understand even the case where $X$ and $Y$ are local:

Suppose $R$ and $S$ are local rings and $R\to S$ is a local homomorphism with $S$ (faithfully) flat over $R$. If $S$ is regular, must $R$ be regular?

Note that I'm not asking if smoothness is "flat local"; there are certainly flat morphisms from singular things to smooth things (e.g. $k[x,y]/(x^2-y^2)$ is flat over $k[x]$). The question is whether there are flat morphisms from smooth schemes which hit singular points.