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In the proof, the author consider the normalization $\tilde{A}$ of $A$ and show $\tilde{A}/t \tilde{A}$ is a integral domain. He showed that the localizations at points of Spec $A$ are domains, but we know a non-domain ring can have integral localizations. How should I understand the proof? Thanks a lot.

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Thank for Schwede's edit. –  MZWang Feb 5 '12 at 10:30
    
I don't understand your question: $A$ is supposed to be a local noetherian domain -- so he doesn't have to work to prove it is a domain! –  Julien Puydt Aug 26 '12 at 14:47
    
Julien, the problem is to show $\tilde{A}/t\tilde{A}$ is a domain. –  MZWang Aug 30 '12 at 3:32
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