In the proof, the author consider the normalization $\tilde{A}$ of $A$ and show $\tilde{A}/t \tilde{A}$ is a integral domain. He showed that the localizations at points of Spec $A$ are domains, but we know a nondomain ring can have integral localizations. How should I understand the proof? Thanks a lot.
Take the 2minute tour
×
MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. It's 100% free, no registration required.
