Is this a basis for the Bergman space?

defined on the open disc unit of radius 1 in the complex plane

take e_n=z^n and then normalize it, I'm trying to figure out if this is a basis for the

space. my intuition is no, but that would require showing for e.g. that theres a nontrivial

vector thats perpendicular to the entire space

flag	asked Jan 15 2012 at 3:21 analysisexplorer 1

	mathoverflow.net/questions/68172/… – Antun Milas Jan 15 2012 at 3:57
	The normalized monomials do form an o.n. basis for the Bergman space: see the comments here for instance mathoverflow.net/questions/68172/… (To see that the perp of the set of monomials is zero, take a function in Bergman space and look at its Taylor series.) If you need more details then I suggest you ask on math.stackexchange.com where this question is more appropriate – Yemon Choi Jan 15 2012 at 4:00