“The Galois group of $\pi$ is $\mathbb{Z}$.”

Last year, in a talk of Michel Waldschmidt's, I remember hearing a statement along the lines of the title of this question, that is, "The Galois group of $\pi$ is $\mathbb{Z}$.". In what sense/framework is this true? What was meant exactly - and can this notion be made precise?

flag	asked Dec 30 2011 at 2:39 Joshua Seaton 545●1●6

Crossposted from math.SE: math.stackexchange.com/q/94994 – Theo Buehler Dec 30 2011 at 2:52

See this nice survey by Andre: arxiv.org/abs/0805.2569 – gb Dec 30 2011 at 3:04

@JSeaton: When you crosspost to/from math.SE, please inform readers (in both sites) of the fact; this helps prevent duplication of efforts. If you get a good answer in one site, please be sure to note it in the other. – Arturo Magidin Dec 30 2011 at 4:29

@Arturo: Okay, noted. – Joshua Seaton Dec 30 2011 at 16:31