This question is about the Jacobian conjecture for a special case. I will first explain the Jacobian conjecture (since it is something every mathematician should know about).

Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field.

Consider a map $$F: k^n \rightarrow k^n,$$ defined by $$F(x_1,\ldots,x_n)=(f_1(x_1,\ldots,x_n),\ldots,f_n(x_1,\ldots,x_n)),$$ where $f_1,\ldots,f_n$ are polynomials.

The Jacobian of $F$, which I denote $J$, is the determinant of the matrix $dF$ where the $(i,j)$-th entry of $dF$ is $\partial f_i/\partial x_j$. (The matrix $dF$ gives the induced map on the tangent bundle, or maybe it's the cotangent bundle; it doesn't matter for this question.)

Since $F$ is given by polynomials, the entries of $dF$ are polynomials and $J$ is a polynomial. Hence $F$ is a nonsingular map if and only if $J$ is a constant.

The inverse function theorem tells us that $F$ has a smooth inverse map if and only if $J$ is constant. The Jacobian conjecture says that this smooth map is in fact also given by polynomials (in the case where the original map $F$ is given by polynomials).

**Question**: I would like to know if the Jacobian conjecture is known (or trivial) for the special case where the matrix $dF$ is a triangular matrix with $1$'s on the diagonal. If it is not known, I would like to know if the full Jacobian conjecture is known to be equivalent to this special case.

Motivation: This is a possible strategy for proving that a particular family of maps I have constructed for a particular purpose is in fact invertible within the category of affine algebraic varieties.

EDIT: Clarifying in light of Tom's remark. The inverse function theorem just says that $F$ has a local inverse. The Jacobian conjecture is that $F$ has a global inverse which is given by polynomials.