According to this page and thence linked text, if $e : R \to S$ is an epimorphism of rings, then the cardinality of $S$ cannot exceed the cardinality of $R$. This is a nontrivial observation because epimorphisms of rings need not be surjective. Is there a "layman's" explanation of this fact, one that does not require me to learn French?
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An explanation of a layman to a layman. Let $T={\rm Im}\ e$. Then embedding $T\to S$ is again an epimorphism. With respect to $T$ the ring $S$ behaves like the ring (not necessarily the field!) of fractions (compare $\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Q}$), so it has the same cardinality. It is enough? :) I think it is possible to give a rigorous proof by socalled "zigzagtheorem" from Theory of semigroups. 

