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I'd like to see a complete proof of the simplest version of the following rough statement: "If $f/g$ is a rational function on a reduced scheme ($g$ not a zero divisor), and $f/g$ doesn't have poles in codimension $1$, then $f/g$ is a well-defined function on the normalization."

I figure this should be called the valuative criterion of integrality (and if not, then maybe that's my problem). I can't find it in [Eisenbud], [Vakil], [Hartshorne], or [Vasconcelos]. There is a version of it in [Huneke-Swanson], but they're treating the more general case of integral closure of ideals than merely of rings, which obviously I should be able to downgrade from but would rather not if I don't have to. Where should I read about it?

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This is corollary 11.4 in Eisenbud's book, namely a normal domain is the intersection of its localizations at primes of codimension 1.

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Well, so it is! Thanks! – Allen Knutson Oct 20 2011 at 20:28
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In [Vakil], it goes by the moniker 'Algebraic Hartogs Lemma'. – Graham Leuschke Oct 20 2011 at 21:00

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