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Following up on http://mathoverflow.net/questions/78366/koethe-conjecture I was wondering if the Koethe conjecture holds for non associative rings. My impression is that, it does not hold.But I am not sure ! Am I right ? Can you produce a counter example ?

Cheers, Nick

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 It would seem appropriate to state the conjecture here. – Joel Dodge Oct 18 2011 at 14:47
Crosspost from math.SE: math.stackexchange.com/questions/73634 – Theo Buehler Oct 18 2011 at 16:51
You should definitely state what you are after. For example, what is "nil" for nonassociative rings? – Pasha Zusmanovich Oct 30 2011 at 17:55

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