Take the 2-minute tour ×
MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. It's 100% free, no registration required.

I am going through the article at this link, where the author proves that: "$\pi$ is $\text{transcendental}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$". Although, I understand the proof, I have some doubts.

  • At page $6$, the author defines a new function $f(x)$ as $$f(x) = c^{s}x^{p-1} \frac{[\theta(x)]^{p}}{(p-1)!}$$ Can anyone tell me what is the motivation behind defining $f(x)$ in this manner.
share|improve this question
This question should be closed and deleted since the OP has breached netiquette rules by crossposting, cf math.stackexchange.com/questions/72720/… –  Peter McNamara Oct 15 '11 at 0:00
@Chandrasekhar: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Netiquette –  Zev Chonoles Oct 15 '11 at 23:02

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.