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I am going through the article at this link, where the author proves that: "$\pi$ is $\text{transcendental}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$". Although, I understand the proof, I have some doubts.

  • At page $6$, the author defines a new function $f(x)$ as $$f(x) = c^{s}x^{p-1} \frac{[\theta(x)]^{p}}{(p-1)!}$$ Can anyone tell me what is the motivation behind defining $f(x)$ in this manner.
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This question should be closed and deleted since the OP has breached netiquette rules by crossposting, cf math.stackexchange.com/questions/72720/… – Peter McNamara Oct 15 '11 at 0:00
    
@Chandrasekhar: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Netiquette – Zev Chonoles Oct 15 '11 at 23:02

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