Why is $\mathbb{R}^n$ not homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^m$ when $n \neq m$?
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closed as too localized by Reid Barton, Qiaochu Yuan, Ben Webster♦ Dec 1 at 21:05 |
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If you had a homeomorphism, call it f, then you would have a homeomorphism $f: \mathbb{R}^n - pt \to \mathbb{R}^m-f(pt)$, where $pt$ is a point of $\mathbb{R}^n$. Now compare the homology groups, and you arrive at a contradiction. |
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Brouwer's Invariance of Domain. |
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