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Hi,

I found quite a few books that state the two equivalent definitions of submodular functions that can also be found on Wikipedia.

I couldn't find, though, a proof of the equivalence in any of the sources. Does somebody of you guys know of any?

Any help greatly appreciated,

DocEW

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 I'm voting to close because this is not a research-level question. Note that the Wikipedia link gives one definition in general but the other only for finite sets; when the sets are finite, an easy induction solves the problem. – Andreas Blass Jun 17 2011 at 16:17
yes, this is not a research level question by any means. please ask on math.SE – S. Sra Jun 17 2011 at 16:26
have a look at Vondrak's lectures notes here: theory.stanford.edu/~jvondrak/CS369P.html – S. Sra Jun 17 2011 at 16:29
Sorry for asking inappropriately. And thanks for the link. Indeed this PDF theory.stanford.edu/~jvondrak/CS369P-files/… contains the proof. – DocEW Jun 20 2011 at 6:52

closed as too localized by Andreas Blass, Tony Huynh, Qiaochu Yuan, Ryan Budney, Yemon Choi Jun 17 2011 at 22:54

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