Hello!

Let $M$ be an almost complex manifold. Let $TM$ denote its tangent bundle. Then we have the decomposition $TM\otimes\mathbb{C}=T^{1,0}M\oplus T^{0,1}M$ corresponding to the eigenvalues of the almost complex structure. This decomposition yields the decomposition: $$ \Lambda^r(T^\star M\otimes\mathbb{C})=\Lambda^r(T^{1,0}M^\star\oplus T^{0,1}M^\star)=\bigoplus_{p+q=r}\Lambda^p(T^{1,0}M^\star)\otimes\Lambda^q(\overline{T^{0,1}M}^\star) $$ Now take a section $\omega$ of the complex vector bundle $$ \Lambda^{p,q}:=\Lambda^p(T^{1,0}M^\star)\otimes\Lambda^q(\overline{T^{0,1}M}^\star) $$ $\omega$ is called a complex differential form of type $(p,q)$. Consider a complex $(p,q)$-form $\omega$ and take its differential. Its differential $\mathrm{d}\omega$ is a section of: $$ \Lambda^{p+q+1}(T^\star M\otimes\mathbb{C})=\bigoplus_{m+n=p+q+1}\Lambda^{m,n} $$ Therefore $\mathrm{d}\omega$ can be decomposed in a sum of complex differential forms of type $(m,n)$ with $m+n=p+q+1$. However I have read that there are only four terms. My second question is:

*How do we prove that in fact $\mathrm{d}\omega$ is a section of: $$\Lambda^{p+2,q-1}\oplus\Lambda^{p+1,q}\oplus\Lambda^{p,q+1}\oplus\Lambda^{p-1,q+2}$$ only?*

I am aware that in the case where the almost complex structure is integrable we get only two terms such that finally we have $\mathrm{d}=\partial+\bar{\partial}$. But in fact it seems that in the almost complex case already we do not have so many terms (namely we have only 4 as above). I think this has something to do with the graduation of the algebra of differential forms and the nilpotence of the differential itself but I am not able to prove it.

At last, since I am interesting in the same kind of question concerning Lie and Courant algebroids, I was wondering if this fact could be recast in the language of homotopical algebras (by which I vaguely mean that usual identities on brackets hold up to something else)? This is because the algebra of differential forms is a supercommutative algebra and that we can reformulate $\mathrm{d}^2=0$ by $[\mathrm{d},\mathrm{d}]=0$. Could somebody point me toward an article?

Thank you very much!