Suppose $G$ is a group and $V$ an irreducible representation of $G$. One has that $V\otimes V\cong \Lambda^2(V)\oplus Sym^2(V)$. It is well-known that if the trivial representation appears as a subrepresentation of $\Lambda^2(V)$ then $V$ is of quaternionic type; while if the trivial representation appears as a subrepresentation of $Sym^2(V)$ then $V$ is a of real type. From this approach, it is clear that the trivial representation cannot appear in both $\Lambda^2(V)$ and $Sym^2(V)$.

What I am curious about is as follows:

Question:Is there is some (relatively easy) way to see why the trivial representation cannot appear in both $\Lambda^2(V)$ and $Sym^2(V)$ without introducing the machinery of real/quaternionic types?

As a bit of motivation, if one looks at other subrepresentations, then for example if $G = G_2$ and $V_n$ is an $n$-dimensional irreducible representation of $G_2$, then $V_{64}$ appears as a subrepresentation of both $\Lambda^2(V_{27})$ and $Sym^2(V_{27})$. In particular it is possible for the intertwining number of $\Lambda^2(V)$ and $Sym^2(V)$ to be nonzero, but by the real vs. quaternionic characterization, the trivial representation is somehow special in that it cannot contribute to the intertwining number.