-1

Dear all,

I have two correlated random variables, X and Y. I know that the variance for aX+bY = (a^2)*var[X]+(b^2)var[Y]+2*a*b*covariance[X,Y]

Is the same principle valid for var[aX+bY+C] where C is a constant?

Thanks in advance!

Alonso Tiago

flag
1 
Your question would be better suited to math.stackexchange.com - this site is really for research-level questions mathoverflow.net/faq – Yemon Choi May 10 2011 at 19:21
This is a routine thing, not a research question. – Michael Hardy May 10 2011 at 21:39

closed as too localized by Yemon Choi, Zev Chonoles, George Lowther, Simon Thomas, S. Carnahan May 11 2011 at 4:57

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.