Given a morphism f:X --> Y in sSet, and assume that it induces isomorphisms for \pi_0,\pi_1,\pi_2, and all integral homology groups. Does it imply that f is a weak equivalence?

In Hatcher's Algebraic Topology book, he requires both X and Y simply-connected.

Here is a possible idea of `proof': we may assume f is a fibration between fibrant objects, and let Z be the fiber of f. The long exact sequence for homotopy groups shows that Z is simply-connected. Then need to use Leray-Serre spectral sequence to see all integral homology of Z vanishes. But since Y may not be simply-connected, it is hard to check the condition of the spectral sequence to hold, and I am not good at the twisted coefficients. Just wondering if there is any counterexample for this question, and hopefully some references as well. Thank you.