How can one prove that UMP doesn't exist for some problems. Given zero hypothesis A = 0, and alternative hypothesis A~= 0 UMP test for A>=0 and A<=0 are different, but why it proves that UMP for A~=0 doesn't exist?
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closed as too localized by Andres Caicedo, Igor Rivin, Cam McLeman, Simon Thomas, Scott Morrison♦ Apr 25 2011 at 5:22 |
