Here is the fact in measure theory:

FACT : Let $E$ be a Lebesgue measurable subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$. Almost every $x\in E$ satisfies $\lim\limits_{m(B)\to 0,~x\in B}\frac{m(B\cap E)}{m(B)}=1$ i.e. limit is taken over the ball $B$ containing $x$ with shrinking it.

Using this fact, I want to prove that

If a Lebesgue masureale subset $E$ of $[0,1]$ satisfies $m(E\cap I)\geq \alpha m(I)$ for some $\alpha>0$, for all interval $I$ in $[0,1]$, then $E$ has measure 1.

How can I use the fact to prove the last assertion?