-1

Hello,

I would need to calculate the integral between 0 and +infty of {1- (1/pi) [arctan(4/x)-arctan(-4/x)]}*(1/x) dx.

Could you please let me know how to do that and what's the correct answer?

Thanks loads in advance for your help;

All the best, Elise

flag
Probably this is not a research-level math question? If not, then it goes in another web site, instead. For example: artofproblemsolving.com – Gerald Edgar Apr 2 2011 at 13:18
The integral diverges at infinity. – Michael Renardy Apr 2 2011 at 15:11

closed as off topic by Franz Lemmermeyer, Dan Petersen, Charles Matthews, Simon Thomas, Andres Caicedo Apr 2 2011 at 15:23

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.