3
$\begingroup$

In the chapter on Gröbner bases from Eisenbud's "Commutative Algebra" the following statement appears as Proposition 15.15 (page 344):

Let $F$ be a free $S$ module with basis and monomial order compatible with a given monomial order on $S$. If $M\subset F$ is any submodule and $h_{1},\cdots,h_{u} \in S$ are such that $in(h_{1}),\cdots, in(h_{u})$ is a regular sequence on $F/in(M)$, then $h_{1},\cdots, h_{u}$ is a regular sequence on $F/M$ and $in(M+(h_{1},\cdots,h_{u})F)=in(M)+\sum_{i=1}^{u}in(h_{i})F$.

Here $S$ denotes the ring of polynomials in $r$ variables over an (infinite) field $k$. For more notation refer to the book.

Now, it is clear that it suffices to prove the statement for $u=1$. So writing $h_{1}=h$ Eisenbud argues:

"Suppose $hf\in M$ for some $f\in F$. We must prove that $f\in M$, and we may do induction on the size of $in(f)$. We have $in(hf)=in(h)in(f)\in in(M)$ [there is a typo in the book here], so by our hypothesis $in(f)\in in(M)$. Thus $h(f-in(f))\in M$, and by our induction $f-in(f)\in M$, so we are done."

My question is: why do one has that $h(f-in(f))\in M$? This is clearly equivalent to $h (in(f))\in M$, but I don't see why this holds. The last assertion presents a similar problem (it seems for me that the assumption $in(M)\subset M$ is behind all of this, perhaps the orders on $S$ and/or $F$ must fulfill some additional property).

The thing seems too elementary that I don't dare to look for counter examples or alternative proofs (do you know some?) without knowing more opinions, and I don't feel like ignoring it. Can somebody give her/his opinion please?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

Indeed, $h(f-in(f))\in M$ does not hold in general. As an example, take $S=F=k[x,y], M=\langle x+y\rangle, h=y$ and any monomial order. Then $h \cdot (x+y) \in M$, but neither $hx$ nor $hy$ is in $M$.

The proof is easily fixed, though. After ".., so by our hypothesis, $in(f) \in in(M)$" continue as follows. Let $m \in M$ such that $in(m)=in(f)$. Then $h(f-m) \in M$, and $f-m$ has a smaller initial term, and we conclude by induction on $in(f)$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.