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Let D be a p.i.d.,E a domain containing D as a subring.Show that if d is a g.c.d. of a and b in D,then d is also a g.c.d. of a and b in E.(Perhaps it is quite simple to most of you.)

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 Regardless of whether it is simple or not, why is it phrased as if it is an exercise, or a known result which you have been asked to prove? – Yemon Choi Feb 1 2011 at 7:46
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 Closed. Please see the FAQ. – S. Carnahan♦ Feb 1 2011 at 8:07
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 Anway this is a very nice exercise which is actually useful in some proofs ... – Martin Brandenburg Feb 1 2011 at 8:54

closed as too localized by Andres Caicedo, Angelo, S. Carnahan♦ Feb 1 2011 at 8:07

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