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Let $G$ and $H$ be torsion abelian groups. Are the following are equivalent:

  1. $\mathrm{Hom}(G, H) = 0$

  2. $\mathrm{map}_*( K(G, m), K(H,n)) \sim *$ for all $n, m\geq 1$


Clearly (2) implies (1).

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1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

No, we have $Hom(\mathbb{Z}/n,\mathbb{Z})=0$ but there is a nontrivial Bockstein $K(\mathbb{Z}/n,1)\to K(\mathbb{Z},2)$.

For finite abelian groups we have (1) iff (2) iff ($|G|$ and $|H|$ are coprime).

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Of course. I'll edit the question so that it makes more sense. – Jeff Strom Jan 24 '11 at 20:35
I see that I haven't gotten around to editing the question, and I don't quite remember what I was driving at; and since you did answer the question, you get the cigar. – Jeff Strom Apr 29 '14 at 0:34

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