I agree this question is interesting, but only in a psychological rather than mathematical sense, i.e. the only reason the jordan curve theorem seems obvious is that we do not appreciate the generality of the definition of "continuous", rather taking our simplest intuitive examples as typical. Indeed the proof for smooth functions is pretty easy (cf. Guillemin and Pollack), and how many of us distinguish intuitively between (piecewise) smooth and continuous functions? For instance young students assume the intermediate value theorem is obvious because they do not appreciate the local nature of the definition of continuity, i.e. they intuitively assume that the intermediate value theorem is the definition of continuity, as indeed it was in a less rigorous time. Of course the proof of the IVT is a justification of the reasonableness of the definition of continuity. As Moishezon remarked to us as students: " even if it is obvious, you still have to prove it". Or as Tate said after giving an irresistible pictorial argument in first year honors calc. for the continuity of a composition of continuous functions; :"Of course this is NOT a proof! I have merely rendered it intuitively plausible!" (a statement i did not believe at the time.)

Problems in freshman calculus:
1) Give a characterization of a function g such that g is a primitive of a given Riemann integrable function f. Is it enough to assume that g is continuous and differentiable wherever f is continuous, and that g has derivative equal to f at such points? E.g. is a continuous function which is differentiable with derivative zero a.e. a constant function? If not, what assumptions do you have to add?

2) Give an intrinsic characterization of a function g that is a primitive of some unknown Riemann integrable function on [a,b]. Is it enough to assume that g is Lipschitz continuous?

I guess i would give more credence to this if it concerned say theorems that have physically compelling arguments that are hard to make mathematically rigorous, such as Riemann's arguments for the existence of meromorphic functions of second kind with arbitrary poles.

When someone says it is "obvious" that Euclidean space R^n has dimension n, they are really saying that any definition for which this is false is a bad definition, not that it is easy to give an appropriate definition, nor that it is easy to prove the theorem even for a good definition. So this is just an imprecise use of language.

Let me pose a little fun question: Since everyone knows that if n < m, there can be a continuous surjection, but no homeomorphism from R^n to R^m, what about a continuous injection from R^m to R^n? What is the obvious answer? Is it also the correct answer? How much does your response draw on some non obvious mathematical reasoning?

My best idea in the direction of the original question is: "why is a straight line the shortest smooth curve joining two points?"