My question is quite simple, but I was unable to find an answer by googling, since you can't exactly google syntax. What does the $\in \cdot$ mean in:
$$\lim_{n\to\inf}||P(S_n\in\cdot)-P(S_n+k\in\cdot)||_{tv}=0$$
This is from coupling lectures in probability theory.
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closed as too localized by Wadim Zudilin, José Figueroa-O'Farrill, Yemon Choi, Andres Caicedo, Martin Brandenburg Jan 9 2011 at 9:59 |
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If $S_n$ is a real-valued random variable, then I would read $P(S_n \in \cdot)$ as denoting the probability measure $P \circ S_n^{-1}$ on $\mathbb{R}$, i.e. the set function $B \mapsto P(S_n \in B)$ where $B \in \mathcal{B}_{\mathbb{R}}$, the Borel $\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb{R}$. The quantity in norm bars is then the total variation distance between these two measures, which means the given expression can be rewritten $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{B \in \mathcal{B}_\mathbb{R}} |P(S_n \in B) - P(S_n + k \in B)| $$ |
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I think the answer is that the $\cdot$ induces an anonymous function, e.g. the above is equal to:
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