I am reasonably certain this is the case, but can't find a reference that actually states this, although the Wikipedia article states something close.
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
2
2
|
|
|
|
|
5
|
It is possible to have all the subsets of R be measurable (Solovay, Robert M. (1970). "A model of set-theory in which every set of reals is Lebesgue measurable". Annals of Mathematics. Second Series 92: 1–56.) which implies the nonexistence of a well ordering of R. |
|||||||||||||||||
|
You can accept an answer to one of your own questions by clicking the check mark next to it. This awards 15 reputation points to the person who answered and 2 reputation points to you.
|
3
|
Yes. Here's a sketched example: Start in L. Let P be the forcing which adds ω1 many Cohen reals, and let G be an L-generic filter for P. Then L(ℝ)L[G] will model ZF, but will have no well ordering of the reals. The point is that if σ is an automorphism of P, then σ can be extended to an elementary map from L[G] to L[σ[G]], and this extension will fix L(ℝ)L[G]. So if there was a well ordering of ℝ in L(ℝ)L[G], it would give a well ordering of G which was fixed by σ. But σ can reorder the elements of G because of the homogeneity of P. |
|||
|
|

