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Being motivated by this recent post of mine, I am thinking about the base 2 decimal expansion of irrational algebraic numbers. My main question is whether or not the reasoning I outline below contains any major flaws.

First of all, it should be clear that in the base 2 decimal expansion of an irrational number on the interval [0,1], the digits 0 and 1 appear infinitely often; since otherwise the decimal expansion would terminate and the number would be not be irrational.

Therefore, I consider permutations of the sequence $I$ = 101010101010....

Let $K$ be the group of all permutations of $I$, and let $Q$ be an infinite subgroup of $K$.

Then I claim that every $Q$ has a basis in terms of the fundamental permutation of switching the position of two elements. This amounts to the claim that every permutation in $Q$ can be written as a countably infinite composition of switching operations.

(to be clear, a switch is a permutation $A$ik which exchanges the $i$ and $k$ positions of some infinite binary sequence)

I conjecture that $Q$ is a countably infinite subgroup of $K$ if and only if it has a basis whose elements commute (i.e. the basis of $Q$ never switches the same position in the sequence twice)

In the first direction, assume $Q$ has a commuting basis; then it's clear that the elements of $Q$ can be listed according to the order of lowest to highest positions of switches, and therefore can be counted.

In the other direction, assume $Q$ has a non-commuting basis, but is countable. Then by writing the elements of $Q$ in a list where each element is written in terms of an ordered composition of basis elements, it's clear that we can apply the diagonal method to construct an element of $Q$ which is not on the list; which is a contradiction.

(EDIT: to clarify the comment below, I originally called Q a subset, but edited it to subgroup)

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I don't understand what you mean by a basis of a subset of a group. – Qiaochu Yuan Jul 31 2010 at 17:20
In any case, I am pretty sure both directions of your argument are invalid. Being orderable doesn't imply be countable: a counterexample is the subgroup generated by the transpositions (2i-1, 2i) for positive integers i, which is uncountable. AS for the other direction, the subgroup of permutations which switch only finitely many locations is nonabelian but countable. – Qiaochu Yuan Jul 31 2010 at 17:32
I think this is the weak point of my argument. I am trying to mimic the case of permutations of a finite sequence. Any permutation of a finite sequence can be written as the composition of a finite number of switching operations. So the "basis" elements are the switch operations. For the case of permutations of an infinite sequence, I believe/assume that every permutation can be written as the countably infinite ordered composition of switching operations. – Matt Calhoun Jul 31 2010 at 17:36
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Ah, sorry: in the first example I just mean the subgroup of all elements which switch 2i-1 with only 2i. In any case, whether that's true or not (with the right definition of countably infinite composition) your last two arguments are still invalid if you mean what I think you mean by "basis." – Qiaochu Yuan Jul 31 2010 at 17:43
"Basis" = "Minimal generating set" or maybe just "generating set"? – JBL Jul 31 2010 at 18:27
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