Suppose a bounded sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x$ in the Cesaro sense (i.e., $\frac{1}{n}(x_1 + x_2 + \dots + x_n)\rightarrow x$) in a separable Hilbert space $H$. How to prove that some subsequence $(x_{n_k})$ converges weakly to $x$?

If we take $x_n = (1)^n x$ then $x_n$ converges to $0$ in Cesaro sence. But no subsequence of $x_n$ converges weakly to $0$. $x_n$ is also a bounded sequence. Hence your statements seems wrong. 

