Let $S$ be a linearly ordered set. A pair $(X,Y)$ of subsets $X$, $Y$ of $S$ is called a pre-cut if $x < y$ (strict inequality) for all $x \in X$ and $y \in Y$. Pre-cuts are naturally ordered: $(X,Y) \le (U,V)$ if $X \subseteq U$ and $Y \subseteq V$.
The following property easily follows from the Zorn Lemma:
(*) Every pre-cut is contained in a maximal pre-cut.
Is the reverse true, that the validity of property (*) for all linearly ordered sets implies (in ZF) the Zorn Lemma?