I have a specific problem, but would also like to know how to tackle the general case. I will first state the genral question. Let $M$ be an embedded submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and let $F: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n $ be a smooth map. How do I go about checking whether $F(M)$ is a smooth embedded submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^n$ or not? The specific problem I have is the following :- Let $F:\mathbb{C}^2\to \mathbb{C}^2$ the map $(z_1,z_2) \mapsto (z_1+z_2,z_1z_2)$ and let $M$ be the unit sphere in $\mathbb{C}^2$, i.e., $\lbrace (z_1,z_2) : |z_1|^2 + |z|^2 = 1 \rbrace $. Is $F(M)$ an embedded submanifold of $\mathbb{C}^2$ (considered as $\mathbb{R}^4$)?
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
6
4
|
|||||||
|
|
8
|
The specific $F(M)$ is not a smooth submanifold. Here is an argument. To simplify formulas, I renormalize the sphere: let it be the set of $(z_1,z_2)\in\mathbb C^2$ such that $|z_1|^2+|z_2^2|=2$ rather than 1. Then, as Gregory Arone pointed out, $F(M)$ is the set of $(b,c)\in\mathbb C^2$ such that the roots $z_1,z_2$ of the equation $z^2-bz+c$ satisfy $|z_1|^2+|z_2^2|=2$. I claim that it is not a smooth manifold near the point $p:=(2,1)\in F(M)$. Let us intersect $F(M)$ with two planes: If $b=2$, the equation is $z^2-2z+c=0$, hence $z_1+z_2=2$, then $|z_1|+|z_2|\ge 2$ and therefore $|z_1|^2+|z_2|^2\ge 2$. Equality is attained only for $z_1=z_2=1$, thus the intersection is a single point $c=1$, not a 1-dimensional submanifold. If $c=1$, the equation is $z^2-bz+1$, hence $z_1z_2=1$, then $|z_1|\cdot|z_2|=1$ and therefore $|z_1|^2+|z_2|^2\ge 2$. The equality is attained if and only if $|z_1|=|z_2|=1$, so $z_1$ and $z_2$ are conjugate to each other. The set of $b$'s for which this happens is the real line segment $[-2,2]$ which is not a submanifold near 2. |
||
|
|
You can accept an answer to one of your own questions by clicking the check mark next to it. This awards 15 reputation points to the person who answered and 2 reputation points to you.
|
5
|
If you consider the real map $(x_1, x_2)$-->$(x_1+x_2, x_1x_2)$ then the image of the circle is not a submanifold. Infact your map is not injective: it is symmetric with respect to swapping the two coordinates, so the circle is folded once onto itself and its image is homeomorphic to a closed segment. In the complex case, my guess is that the image is homeomorphic to the quotient of the sphere by the involution that swaps the two complex variables... The fixed point set of this involution is the circle given by intersection with the line $(z,z)$. Near this circle the quotient should be like the quotient of R x C by the involution $(t, z) \mapsto (t, -z)$, which is still a manifold. So I would think F(M) is a manifold... |
||||||||
|
|
4
|
To elaborate on Diego Matessi's answer (and Boyarsky's comment which I only saw after writing this)... the map $F$ is symmetric, so it factors as a composite map
Edit Let me point out that the equation can be simplified. Let $\Delta=b^2-4c$. Then the equation is in fact equivalent to
|
|||
|
|

