If ℝ# exists then why is cof(θL(ℝ)) = ω? Also I have the same question for the L(Vλ+1) generalization (if it's actually a different proof; I presume it isn't), i.e. if θ is defined as the sup of the surjections in L(Vλ+1) of Vλ+1 onto an ordinal, then if Vλ+1# exists why is cof(θL(Vλ+1)) = ω?
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
4
2
|
|||||||||||||||||
|
|
4
|
This is because the pieces of the sharp singularize Theta. Let s_n be the sequence of the first n cardinals above continuum and let a_n be the nth cardinal above continuum. Then the theory of reals with a parameter s_n in L_{a_n+1}(R) is a set of reals A_n. They are Wadge cofinal in Theta, another words the sequence is not in L(R) but each A_n is and that is why you get a singularization. |
|||||
|
You can accept an answer to one of your own questions by clicking the check mark next to it. This awards 15 reputation points to the person who answered and 2 reputation points to you.
|
3
|
Scott, the best way to think of sharps is via mice. Think of x^# as a mouse over x with one measure which is iterable. R^# is a mouse over R with one measure which is iterable. Things become very easy ones you make the move from sharps as reals or sets of reals or etc to sharps as mice. |
||
|
|

