# Is a map that is locally fiberwise equivalent to a product a Hurewicz fibration?

The following is a result I feel like I've seen some form of before, but can't figure out how to prove or find a reference for. Suppose you have a map p:E \to B, with B paracompact, and suppose that every point in B has a neighborhood U such that there is a map p^{-1}(U) \to U \times F over U which is a fiber homotopy equivalence. Does it follow that p is a Hurewicz fibration? The converse, if B is locally contractible, is standard: a Hurewicz fibration is locally equivalent to a product.

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