I have a stupid question :
Lets $H_t$ be a 1-periodic family of Hamiltonian functions on symplectic manifold $(M,w)$. corresponding to that, we considers the 1-periodic Hamiltonian vector fields $X_t$, $\iota_{X_t}w=-dH_t$, and the Hamiltonian flow, $\Psi_t$, given by the equation $$\dot{x}=X_t(x(t))$$.
The goal of Floer homology is to count the 1-periodic orbits of this flow. lets $x(t)$ be one of them, so one can consider the the linearization of $\Psi_t$ along this orbit to get the map $D\Psi_1(x(0)) : T_{x(0)}M \rightarrow T_{x(0)}M $.
According to definition, a periodic orbit is called non-degenerate if $det(I-D\Psi_1(x(0)))\neq 0$. But how could it be possible because $D\Psi_1(x(0)) (X_0(x(0)))=X_0(x(0))$.
Reference : page 14 of http://students.washington.edu/rlmill/superseminar/salamon.pdf

