Let $C$ be an elliptic curve defined by $y^2=(xe_1)(xe_2)(xe_3)$.
My question is how to determine the order of the differential $dx$ at infinity, $ord_{\infty}(dx)$.
Let $C$ be an elliptic curve defined by $y^2=(xe_1)(xe_2)(xe_3)$. My question is how to determine the order of the differential $dx$ at infinity, $ord_{\infty}(dx)$. 


When I saw that example in Silverman for the first, it didn't understand much out of it either. I'm still not good at it, but I'm trying to solve it using theorems and examples in Silverman. However, It is possible that I don't see some trivial stuff and try to prove them. On the bright side, in the begining, not assuming any thing, has some benefits. I want to use Proposition II.4.3.d. which says: $\mathrm{ord}_p(fdx) = \mathrm{ord}_p(f) + \mathrm{ord}_p(x)  1$ To compute $\mathrm{div}(x)$ We need to check all $P \in C$ and compute $\mathrm{ord}_p(dx)$. If $P = (x_0, y_0) \neq (e_i, 0)$ then $M_P = (x  x_0, y  y_0)$. However, on can see that $x  x_0$ is a uniformizer for $P$, because $x  x_0$ can generate the whole ideal. To see that, it is enough to show that it can generate $y  y_0$. We have: $(xx_0)f(x) = (x  e_1)(x  e_2)(x  e_3)  (x_0  e_1)(x_0  e_2)(x  e_3)$ For some $f(x) \in K[E]_{(x_0,y_0)}$, because $x_0$ is a root for the right hand side. Now using the curve equation we can write the right hand side as: $(xx_0)f(x) = y^2  y_0^2$ Now because $y + y_0 \not \in (y  y_0, xx_0)$ so $1/(y+y_0) \in K[E]_{(x_0,y_0)}$, so we can multiply both side by $1/(y+y_0)$ and we get: $(xx_0)\frac{f(x)}{y + y_0} = y  y_0$, hence $M_{(x_0, y_0)} = (xx_0)$ and therefore $\mathrm{ord}_{(x_0, y_0)}(dx) = \mathrm{ord}_{(x_0, y_0)}(d(xx_0)) = \mathrm{ord}_{(x_0, y_0)}(xx_0)  1 = 0$ Using Proposition II.4.3.d. So we only need to compute $\mathrm{ord}_p(dx)$ for $p = (e_i, 0)$ and $p = \infty$. We know that $M_{(e_i, 0)} = (y, x  e_i)$ However, clearly $y^2 = (x  e_i)f(x)$ for some $f(x) \in K[E]_{(e_i,0)}^*$. So, $y$ is a unifromizer for $M_{(e_i, 0)}$ and $\mathrm{ord}_{(e_i,0)}(x  e_i) = 2$. Using the same proposition we have: $\mathrm{ord}_{(e_i, 0)}(dx) = \mathrm{ord}_{(e_i, 0)}(d(xe_i)) = \mathrm{ord}_{(e_i, 0)}(xe_i)  1 = 2 1 =1$ For the point at infinity, We can use $dx = x^2(d(1/x))$. Now from example II.3.3, We know that $ord_{\infty}(x) = 2$. So we can easily use the proposition again: $ord_{\infty}(dx) = ord_{\infty}(x^2d(1/x)) =$ $2ord_{\infty}(x) + ord_{\infty}(1/x)  1 = 2 (2) + (2)  1 = 3$. Therefore $\mathrm{div}(dx) = (e_1, 0) + (e_2, 0) + (e_3, 0)  3\infty$ 

