0
$\begingroup$

Let $l$ be a prime number, $n\in \mathbb{Z}$. Is it true that any finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}$-module has a finite (left) resolution by free finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}$-modules?

I am not an expert in the field, so the question might not be on the research level. Sorry about that.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ A theorem of Serre asserts that if $A$ is a noetherian local ring with residue field $k$, then the $A$-module $k$ has a finite resolution by free finitely generated $A$-modules if and only if $A$ is regular. In this case, it has such a resolution whose length is the Krull dimension of $A$. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_dimension and mathoverflow.net/questions/103530/… $\endgroup$
    – ACL
    Apr 11, 2016 at 8:08

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

No. In fact, this is as far from true as possible: a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}$-module has a finite free resolution iff it is free. To see this, note that a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}$ is a direct sum of modules of the form $\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z}$ for $m\leq n$ (this follows from the classification of finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}$-modules, for instance). We can construct an infinite periodic free resolution of $\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z}$ like this: $$\dots\stackrel{l^{n-m}}\to\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}\stackrel{l^m}\to\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}\stackrel{l^{n-m}}\to\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}\stackrel{l^m}\to\mathbb{Z}/l^n\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z}\to 0.$$

If $0<m<n$ (i.e., if $\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z}$ is not free), then when you Hom this resolution into $\mathbb{Z}/l\mathbb{Z}$ all the maps become $0$, so you find that $\operatorname{Ext}^k(\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z}/l\mathbb{Z})=\mathbb{Z}/l\mathbb{Z}$ for all $k$. Thus $\mathbb{Z}/l^m\mathbb{Z}$ has infinite projective dimension.

$\endgroup$

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.