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Hi, I've read this sentence but I can not understand what it means

[...] $\Phi'$ is the topological dual of some dense space $\Phi$ of $H_{aux}$ [...] Notice that the choice of $\Phi$ is subject to the two conditions: [...] ,On the other hand it must be small enough so that its topological dual $\Phi$ is "sufficiently large" [...]

What the author means by "sufficiently large"? Is it the dimension? Knowing that the spaces under consideration are infinite dimensional

Edit: why does the dual becomes larger when the original space becomes smaller?

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    $\begingroup$ Where did you find this sentence? It would probably help if you gave some more context here. $\endgroup$ May 1, 2010 at 21:24
  • $\begingroup$ Agreed. As a possible guess, in many contexts "sufficiently large" means "has enough objects in it that we care about." $\endgroup$ May 1, 2010 at 21:51
  • $\begingroup$ See arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9508015, page 3, starting with Step 5a. There are also references given there that might help. I agree with Charles and Qiaochu. $\endgroup$ May 1, 2010 at 22:20
  • $\begingroup$ My best guess is that this is a functional analysis question (given the wording and the suggestive notation) so I've retagged as such. $\endgroup$ May 2, 2010 at 18:06
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, here is the paper arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9504018 it treats the quantization on the diff constraint in LQG and have to tacle between the space $\Phi$ and its dual. $\endgroup$
    – Pedro
    May 3, 2010 at 13:11

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To answer your final question: Let $\Phi \supset \Psi$. Consider $\Phi' \subset \Phi^*$, the former is the continuous linear functionals on $\Phi$, and the latter is the set of all linear functionals on $\Phi$. Then the restriction of $\Phi'$ on $\Psi$ is obviously continuous, so $\Phi' \subset \Psi'\subset \Psi^*$.

Therefore if you make a space smaller, you makes its dual bigger.

Intuitively speaking, elements of $\Psi'$ need to be continuous on fewer objects, and hence has fewer constraints; thus $\Psi'$ contains more objects.

For your original question: your interpretation is sort-of okay. The point is that infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces admit dense proper subspaces (hope I am getting the notation correct). And in particular you can have two dense subspaces of a Hilbert space with one strictly contained in the other. You may want to review volume 2 of Reed and Simon.

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  • $\begingroup$ Okay, here is how I understood it: If a functional A is in $\Phi'$ (i.e continuous on the whole $\Phi$) it will automatically be continuous on $\Psi$ (i.e it is in $\Psi'$) as $\Psi$ inherits the topology of $\Phi$ thus $A\in\Phi'\implies A\in\Psi'$, on the other hand, if A is in $\Psi'$ (i.e continuous on $\Psi$) it can be non-continuous on the whole $\Phi$ (i.e not in $\Phi'$) thus $A\in\Psi'\not\implies A\in\Phi'$. So we have $\Psi\subset\Phi\implies\Phi'\subset\Psi'$ $\endgroup$
    – Pedro
    May 3, 2010 at 15:14
  • $\begingroup$ So "sufficiently large" then means "functions on it are constrained by fewer (topological) constraintes so that they are huge" $\endgroup$
    – Pedro
    May 3, 2010 at 15:15
  • $\begingroup$ So this property applies to topological (continuous) duals and not to algebraic ones? $\endgroup$
    – Pedro
    May 3, 2010 at 15:20
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    $\begingroup$ depends on what are the bare minimum criterion you are considering. Look at the finite dimensional inner-product space case, and let $W$ be a proper subspace of $V$. Then if you consider the set of objects to be the space of continuous functions on $V$, then there are elements in the algebraic dual of $W$ that is strictly not in the dual of $V$, by virtue of it being non-linear on $V$. For example, the function $f(\|P_W^\perp\|)$ where $P_W^\perp$ is the projection to the orthogonal complement of $W$ in $V$ and $f$ is some arbitrary continuous function will be linear on $W$ (in fact, trivial) $\endgroup$ May 4, 2010 at 10:07
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    $\begingroup$ ...but not linear on $V$, so is not an element of the "algebraic dual" $V^*$ while its restriction to $W$ is in $W'$. Going the other way, you should remember Hahn-Banach theorem, which shows that there always is some continuous extension of a continuous linear functional on the subspace. The question is really one of epistemology: is it useful to consider examples as I just described? (I don't know.) Is it useful to consider linear functionals on a Hilbert space that is bounded on a dense subspace but not elsewhere? Evidently yes. $\endgroup$ May 4, 2010 at 10:15

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