I have a follow-up question to this one:
Specifically, how do I generalise the result given here (and on Wikipedia) for the unbiased sample estimate of the variance of a weighted population to the case where the weights are not normalised to 1? (or equivalently are not in the standard simplex, as in the previous question's answer derivation)
I'm not sure how much of the previous answer relied on the weights being in the unit simplex, but it's clear that the given answer contains denominator terms like $1 - \sum_i w_i^2$ which aren't going to be nice if $\sum_i w_i^2 > 1$! Maybe there's a simple ansatz for modification to unnormalized weights, but it's not obvious to me which to choose!