Once upon a time I asked whether $\omega_1 \times \beta \mathbb{N}$ is normal. I got the answer no and a fairly convincing proof of this here

However I'm currently in a situation where I have three plausible proofs of plausible results at most two of which can be true, and of the three this is the one of which I'm currently the least sure (there are a bunch of details I haven't yet fully checked as I'm in the process of dusting off some of my recently rather unused knowledge about general topology), so was hoping someone could confirm.