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My question is linked to the foundations of Finsler metrics (with weak derivability assumptions).

Let $M$ be a manifold of dimension $n$, and $F$ is a function from the tangent bundle $TM$ to $\mathbb{R}^+$. The function is in fact given in a coordinates chart. That is, we have locally a function $f(x, v)$ (which represents $F$ in the coordinates chart) from $\mathbb{R}^n\times\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^+$.

We know that the function $f$ is homogeneous of the first degree relatively to the second variable. We are interested in the derivability conditions on $f$ that are preserved when we change the coordinates chart.

Alvarezpaiva, in the first answer below, gave an example that show that, if we suppose that $f$ is of class $\cal{C}^1$, only with regards to the first variable, then we cannot deduce that $\phi^*f$, representing $f$ in another coordinates chart, will have the same property.

The example show that, in order for $\phi^*f$ to be derivable, we need to assume that the change of coordinates $\phi$ is itself of class $\cal{C}^2$.

The question is now: is it always sufficient?

The correct derivability assumptions we have to make, in order for them to be preserved after a change of coordinates chart, seem to be:

1) That the change of coordinates is of class $\cal{C}^2$.

2) That the function $f$ is of class $\cal{C}^1$, with regards to BOTH variables.

The new function, after change of coordinates, is:

$\phi^*f=(f\circ \phi_*)$ with $\phi_*(x, v)=(\phi(x), D\phi_x(v))$.

Now $D\phi_*(x, v)(dx, dv)=(D\phi_x.dx, D^2\phi_x.v.dx+D\phi_x.dv)$. The chain rule gives us:

$D(\phi^*f).(x, v)(dx, dv)=Df_{\phi_*(x, v)}.D\phi_*(x, v)(dx, dv)$. And $f$ is still of class $\cal{C}^1$.

With Alvarezpaiva's example of a fixed norm $f(x, v)=\left\|v\right\|$, we get:\ $D(\phi^*f)(x, v)(dx, 0)=\frac{1}{\left\|D\phi_x.v\right\|}\left\langle D\phi_x(v)|D^2\phi_x.v.dx\right\rangle$.

Could you please confirm my reasoning and my notations (differential geometry is not my speciality)?

Thanks a lot.

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    $\begingroup$ I'm not sure I understand your question. Your change of variables is actually linear in the second variable: if $\phi$ is a $C^1$ map $\phi^*f (x,v) = f(\phi(x),D\phi_x(v))$. Therefore the new function has the same properties. $\endgroup$ Nov 26, 2014 at 13:26
  • $\begingroup$ I agree with you that, because the change of variables is linear in the second variable, it is easy to see that the $\phi^*f$ is still homogeneous of the first degree, with regards to the second variable. Indeed $\phi^*f (x, \lambda.v)=f(\phi(x), D\phi_x(\lambda.v))=\|\lambda\|.\phi^*f (x, v)$. But I don't see how to proceed to demonstrate the other part. Is it true that $\phi^*f$ is of class $\car{C}^1$ with regards to the first variable? $\endgroup$ Nov 26, 2014 at 14:21
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    $\begingroup$ Ah, I get it now. No, it's not true. Take as your first function a fixed norm $\|\cdot\|$ (you can even take it on the real line) and consider a $C^1$ differ $\phi$ as before. The new Finsler function is $F(x,v) = \|D_x\varphi(v)\|$, but it is just continuous on $x$. $\endgroup$ Nov 26, 2014 at 19:23
  • $\begingroup$ Dear alvarez Paiva, I could not answer to your answer by a comment (I needed more place), so I changed the formulation of the initial question to fit with your comment. $\endgroup$ Nov 27, 2014 at 12:48

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