Let E be a supersingular curve over a finite field. Why is the j-invariant always in F_p^2?
Remember to vote up questions/answers you find interesting or helpful (requires 15 reputation points)
|
5
2
|
||||
|
|
5
|
(Note: the following argument uses the fact that an isogeny of elliptic curves is inseparable iff it factors through the Frobenius isogeny. This is a result in Silverman's book, for instance.) Let $E$ be an elliptic curve over an algebraically closed field $k$ of positive characteristic $p$. Recall that $[p]: E \rightarrow E$ is always an inseparable isogeny. Therefore, by the above, it factors through $F: E \rightarrow E^p$. Moreover $E$ is supersingular iff |
||||||
|
You can accept an answer to one of your own questions by clicking the check mark next to it. This awards 15 reputation points to the person who answered and 2 reputation points to you.
|
4
|
In characteristic $p$, every map $E_1 \to E_2$ factors as a power of the Frobenius $\varphi_r \colon E_1 \to E_1^{(p^r)}$ followed by a separable morphism $E_1^{(p^r)} \to E_2$, and we find $r$ by looking at the inseparable degree of our map (if the map is separable, then $r=0$, as Pete pointed out). Now, in the case of interest, if $E$ is supersingular, $\widehat{\varphi}$ is inseparable (as this is equivalent to multiplication by $p$ being purely inseparable). But then $\widehat{\varphi} \colon E^{(p)} \to E$ factors as $E^{(p)} \to E^{(p^2)} \to E$ by comparing degrees, where the first map is the Frobenius and the second is an isomorphism. It then follows that $j(E) = j(E^{(p^2)}) = j(E)^{p^2}$ so $j(E) \in \mathbb{F}_{p^2}$. |
|||||||||
|

