Hello all, this question is a variant (and probably a more difficult one) of a (promptly answered ) question that I asked here, at http://mathoverflow.net/questions/18054/is-it-true-that-all-the-irrational-power-functions-are-almost-polynomial.
For $n\geq 1$, let $f(n)$ denote the "integer part" (largest integer below) $n^{\frac{3}{2}}$, and let $g(n)=f(n+2)-2f(n+1)+f(n)$. Question : Is it true that $g(n)$ is always in $\lbrace -1,0,1\rbrace$ (excepting the initial value $g(1)=2$) ? I checked this up to $n=100000$.
It is not too hard to check that if $t$ is large enough compared to $r$ (say $t\geq \frac{3r^2+1}{4}$), $f(t^2+r)$ is exactly $t^3+\frac{3rt}{2}$ (or $t^3+\frac{3rt-1}{2}$ if $t$ and $r$ are both odd ) and similarly $f(t^2-r)$ is exactly $t^3-\frac{3rt}{2}$ (or $t^3-\frac{3rt+1}{2}$ if $t$ and $r$ are both odd ). So we already know that the answer is "yes" for most of the numbers.

