Take the 2-minute tour ×
MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. It's 100% free, no registration required.

I asked this question on stackexchange, but despite much effort on my part have been unsuccesful in finding a solution.

Does the inequality $$2(|a|+|b|+|c|) \leq |a+b+c|+|a+b-c|+|a+c-b|+|b+c-a|$$ hold for all complex numbers $a,b,c$ ? For real values a case analysis will verify the inequality. What is desired is a proof using the triangle inequality or a counterexample. Thanks in advance.

share|improve this question
3  
See answers and comments at math.stackexchange.com/questions/793905/…. –  Dietrich Burde May 20 at 12:35
13  
You cannot prove it using just the triangle inequality, because it fails in $\mathbb R^3$ with the $l_\infty$ norm: just take the standard basis vectors for $a,b,c$. You’ll probably need to use that $\mathbb C$ is an inner product space. –  Emil Jeřábek May 20 at 13:35
17  
Once you have it for $\ell_1^n$ for all $n$ you have it for $L_1(0,1)$ by approximation. Once you have it for $L_1(0,1)$ you have it for Hilbert spaces because $\ell_2$ embeds isometrically into $L_1(0,1)$ (as the span of IID $N(0,1)$ random variables). –  Bill Johnson May 20 at 14:22
2  
If you want to be more sophisticated, once you have it for some infinite dimensional space you have it for Hilbert spaces by Dvoretzky's theorem. –  Bill Johnson May 20 at 14:23
3  
Even more sophisticated is that every two dimensional real Banach space embeds isometrically into L$_1(0,1)$, so the inequality is true in all two dimensional Banach spaces. –  Bill Johnson May 20 at 14:38

3 Answers 3

up vote 34 down vote accepted

It seems that your inequality is just an incarnation of Hlawka's inequality which says that for any vectors $x, y, z$ in an inner product space $V$ we have

\begin{equation*} \|x+y\| + \|y+z\|+\|z+x\| \le \|x\|+\|y\| + \|z\| + \|x+y+z\|. \end{equation*}

Using $x=a+b-c$, $y=a+c-b$, and $z=b+c-a$ we obtain the inequality in the OP.


Additional remarks:

To add some more context, please see the paper linked here, which provides quite a nice summary of work related to Hlawka's inequality, which apparently stems back to a 1942 paper of Hornich (also cited by Zurab below). The paper linked to above explores the interesting generalization: \begin{equation*} f(x+y) + f(y+z) + f(z+x) \le f(x+y+z) + f(x)+f(y)+f(z), \end{equation*} where $x,y,z$ may come from an Abelian group, or a linear space, or the real line---each with its own set of conditions on the mapping $f$. The functional form of Hlawka's inequality is credited to a 1978 paper of Witsenhausen.

share|improve this answer
    
Do you know a proof of it? –  Qiaochu Yuan May 21 at 0:46
4  
For a proof please see: books.google.com/… . That link also mentions extension to Banach spaces by Lindenstrauss and Pelcynski (under certain embedability assumptions) –  Suvrit May 21 at 0:50
1  
It looks like Lindenstrauss & Pelczynski had in mind the same observations I made in comments above. That approach for extending inequalities from the real line to $L_p$ spaces has of course been around for a long time. –  Bill Johnson May 21 at 4:28

In general, once you've proven an inequality like this in ${\bf R}$ it holds automatically in any Euclidean space (including ${\bf C}$) by averaging over projections. ("Inequality like this" = inequality where every term is the length of some linear combination of variable vectors in the space; here the vectors are $a,b,c$.) In the case of complex numbers we have $$ |z| = \frac14 \int_0^{2\pi} \bigl| {\rm Re}(e^{i\theta} z) \bigr| \, d\theta. $$ Applying this to $z=a$, $b$, $c$, and $a \pm b \pm c$ reduces the desired inequality to the one-dimensional case. In $d$-dimensional space we'd write $C\|z\|$ as an average of $|u \cdot z|$ over $u$ in the unit sphere (for a suitable constant $C>0$).

I learned this trick at MOP 30+ years ago, and don't know or remember who discovered it. I didn't even know that the specific inequality we were assigned was due to Hlawka (if I remember right that it was the inequality $$ \|x+y\| + \|y+z\|+\|z+x\| \le \|x\|+\|y\| + \|z\| + \|x+y+z\| $$ quoted by Suvrit). We were shown the averaging solution after laboring to prove it bare-handed. The reference Suvrit cites does not use the averaging method, so I do not know whether it too is due to Hlawka or to another mathematician.

share|improve this answer
9  
Notice that $T:\ell_2^n \to L_1(S^{n-1})$ defined by $(Tx)(y):= \langle x, y \rangle$ is another (multiple of an) isometric embedding of an $n$ dimensional Hilbert space into $L_1$. So at the appropriate conceptual level, the two proofs are basically the same. –  Bill Johnson May 21 at 6:35
1  
Very nice trick! +1 –  Malik Younsi May 21 at 14:09

In fact the Hlawka's inequality first appeared (as a special case of more general result) in H. Hornich, Eine Ungleichung für Vektorlängen, Mathematische Zeitschrift 48 (1942), 268-274 http://gdz.sub.uni-goettingen.de/dms/load/img/?PPN=PPN266833020_0048&DMDID=DMDLOG_0025&LOGID=LOG_0025&PHYSID=PHYS_0256 (see p. 268. P.S. as Joni Teräväinen has remarked, Hornich credits on page 274 to Hlawka an algebraic proof of this special case and reproduces it).

Hlawka's original proof, besides the book indicated by Suvrit, can be found in "Classical and New Inequalities in Analysis" by D.S. Mitrinovic, J. Pecaric and A.M Fink, p. 521 and in "Analytic Inequalities" by D.S. Mitrinovic, p.171. Both books provide Adamovic and Djorkovic generalizations of the Hlawka's inequality. Interestingly, all these generalizations are special cases of more general result given in http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0022247X96904588 (Generalizations of Dobrushin's Inequalities and Applications, by M. Radulescu and S. Radulescu).

Another proof of Hlawka's inequality can be found in http://www.sbc.org.pl/Content/34160/1995_13.pdf (On two geometric inequalities, by A. Simon, P. Volkmann), and still another one in http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/2310890?uid=3738936&uid=2&uid=4&sid=21104051771107 (The Polygonal Inequalities, by D.M. Smiley and M.F. Smiley).

share|improve this answer
3  
On page 274 it says that Hlawka had already proved the special case which is this inequality. I'm not sure though if that was published. –  Joni Teräväinen May 21 at 11:38

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.