4
$\begingroup$

This question is largely out of curiosity but also motivated by an attempt to understand vector bundles on elliptic curves better.

I believe it is a theorem of Grauert that any holomorphic vector bundle on a non compact Riemann surface is trivial. In fact I think it holds with vector bundle replaced with principal $G$ bundle with $G$ any complex connected group.

In particular line bundles on affine algebraic curves should be holomorphically trivial. The ideal $m = (x,y) \subset \mathbb{C}[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3 + x)$ determines a rank 1 locally free sheaf and hence a line bundle $L$. Any algebraic section of $L$ must vanish somewhere but there should be non vanishing holomorphic sections.

Can one write down such a section?

Presumably it may be hard to do so in terms of the algebraic coordinates $x,y$ but the curve is biholomophic to $\mathbb{C}/\mathbb{Z}^2 - \mathbb{Z}^2$ with the isomorphism given by the Weierstrass function and it's derivative and I would be happy with a section defined on $\mathbb{C}/\mathbb{Z}^2 - \mathbb{Z}^2$.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Are you sure about your statement? Oka-Grauert principle says that on any Stein space (in particular, affine space) the topological and holomorphic classification of vector bundles coincide, see mathoverflow.net/questions/131453/… In particular, holomorphic vector bundles on a contractible affine space $X$ are trivial. But if $X$ is affine but not contractible, as in your case, I do not see how to apply Oka-Grauert to conclude that vector bundles are trivial. Do you have a reference to the result of Grauert you are talking about? $\endgroup$ Apr 14, 2014 at 10:39
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Nevermind, I found it. It is actually in the same paper of Grauert quoted in the answer I have linked: H. Grauert, Analytische Faserungen über holomorph-vollständigen Räumen, Math. Ann. 135, 263–273 (1958). See also the paper by Rohrl Holomorphic fiber bundles over Riemann surfaces, Bull. Amer. Math. Soc. Volume 68, Number 3 (1962), 125-238. $\endgroup$ Apr 14, 2014 at 10:55

2 Answers 2

6
$\begingroup$

$\def\ZZ{\mathbb{Z}}\def\CC{\mathbb{C}}$ Let $E$ be an elliptic curve with affine chart $\{ (x,y) : y^2 = x+ax^2+bx^3 \}$ . We will write $p$ for the point $(0,0)$ and $\infty$ for the puncture. We want a holomorphic function on $E$ with a simple zero at $p$. We'll write $\omega$ for the nonvanishing holomorphic form $$\omega = \frac{dx}{2y} = \frac{dy}{1+2ax+3 bx^2}$$ on $E$. If we think in terms of the universal cover $\phi: \CC \to E$, then $\phi^{\ast} x$, $\phi^{\ast} y$ and $\phi^{\ast} \omega$ are $\wp(z)$, $\wp'(z)$ and $dz$ respectively (up to scalar factors). I'll switch between $E$ and the universal cover $\CC$ as seems convenient.

Let $\gamma_1$ and $\gamma_2$ be a basis of cycles for $H_1(E)$, avoiding $p$ and $\infty$. Let $\delta$ be a path from $p$ to $\infty$, avoiding $\gamma_1$ and $\gamma_2$.

Claim There are constants $e$ and $f$ so that $$\int_{\gamma_1} \left( \frac{y}{x} + e + f x \right) \omega = \int_{\gamma_2} \left( \frac{y}{x} + e + f x \right) \omega = 0 \quad (\ast).$$

Proof We need to know that the vectors $(\int_{\gamma_1} \omega, \int_{\gamma_2} \omega)$ and $(\int_{\gamma_1} x \omega, \int_{\gamma_2} x \omega)$ are linearly independent. In any particular example, this should be checkable by hand. The conceptual explanation is as follows:

On any smooth affine variety $X$, the closed algebraic $k$ forms represent all classes in $H^k_{DR}(X, \CC)$. In particular, there are algebraic $1$-forms on $E \setminus \{ \infty \}$ representing linearly independent forms $H_1(E \setminus \{ \infty \}) \to \CC$.

Now, $(1, \wp, \wp', \wp'', \wp''', \ldots)$ forms a basis for the coordinate ring of $E \setminus \{ \infty \}$. So $(dz, \wp dz, d \wp, d \wp', d \wp'', \ldots)$ forms a basis for algebraic $1$-forms on $E \setminus \{ \infty \}$. All of these but the first $2$ are exact, so the integrals of $dz$ and $\wp dz$ must span $\mathrm{Hom}(H_1(E \setminus \{ \infty \}), \CC)$. Translate back to the algebraic notation gives the claim. $\square$

Choose a base point $u$ in $E \setminus \delta$ and define $$g(u) = \int_v^u \left( \frac{y}{x} + e + f x \right) \omega$$ where the integral is taken over any path in $E \setminus \delta$. Since we selected $e$ and $f$ to obey $(\ast)$, the integral is well defined, and has a branch discontinuity along $\delta$.

If $\rho$ is any closed curve around $p$, missing the $\gamma_i$ and transverse to $\delta$, then we have $$\oint_{\rho} \left( \frac{y}{x} + a + b x \right) \omega = \oint \left( \frac{y}{y^2+\cdots} + \cdots \right)\left( \frac{dy}{1+\cdots} \right) = 2 \pi i$$ where the ellipses are holomorphic at $p$. So $g$ has a jump discontinuity of $2 \pi i$ over $\delta$.

Define $G(u) = \exp(g(u))$. Then $G(u)$ is holomorphic on all of $E \setminus \{ \infty \}$. It has a simple zero at $p$, an essential singularity at $\infty$ (from integrating $x \omega$ to get a pole of order $1$ and then exponentiating it) and is nonzero everywhere else.

In summary Find a $1$-form $\alpha$ with a residue of $2 \pi i$ at $p$, any pole you want at $\infty$ and integrals in $(2 \pi i) \ZZ$ over $H_1(E \setminus \{ p, \infty \})$. Then $\int \alpha$ is well defined on $E$ except for a branch cut from $p$ to $\infty$, and has discontinuity $2 \pi i$ over the branch cut. And $\exp(\int \alpha)$ is well defined on $E \setminus \{ \infty \}$, with a simple zero at $p$, essential singularity at $\infty$ and no other zeroes or poles. Found by reasoning backwards about what $dG/G$ should look like.

$\endgroup$
-1
$\begingroup$

Let $D \subset X$ be an irreducible divisor. Then there is a standard exact sequence (Hartshorne II.6.5) $$ \mathbb{Z}\cdot D \to Cl(X) \to Cl(X - D) \to 0. $$ In your case $D$ is the inflection point at infinity. This sequence shows that the Picarg group of the affine elliptic curve is not trivial. In particular, the ideal sheaf of a point is not trivial, so the section you want does not exist.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 6
    $\begingroup$ The question asked for a holomorphic, not algebraic, section. In the situation in question, the exponential sequence shows that since $H^1(X, O_X) = H^2(X, O_X) = 0$, we have $Pic(X) = H^2(X, \mathbb{Z})$, which is zero. $\endgroup$ Apr 14, 2014 at 8:15

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.