Take the 2-minute tour ×
MathOverflow is a question and answer site for professional mathematicians. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Consider an algebraic function $\phi$ on $R^{d}$.

By this I mean that there exists a polynomial $P$ with coefficients in $R[x_1,...,x_d]$ (coefficients are polynomials!) such that $P(\phi) = 0$

Let $r$ be a real number >0, I would like to know whether $1/r^{d}$ times $\int_{[-r,r]^d} e^{i \phi}$ tends to zero when $r$ tends to infinity.

Of course it would be enough to show that this integral is bounded by $r^{d-\epsilon}$...

I am not at all familiar with the subject, but from the literature I looked at, I understand that this is the case when $\phi$ itself is a polynomial. I was wondering whether this holds true for any algebraic function.

share|improve this question

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.