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I want to know whether there is some transformation between $_2F_1(a,b;c;x)$ and $_2F_1(a',b';c';x(1-x))$.

Here is an example called the Kummer quadratic transformation, which may be known to most of you. But it involves $x$ and $4x(1-x)$.


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It seems unlikely, but it would be difficult to prove that there is no such transformation. – Ira Gessel Dec 13 '13 at 17:26

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