Suppose $\left( {M_i^n,{q_i}} \right) \to \left( {{R^k},{q_\infty }} \right)$,where $Ri{c_{{M_i}}} \ge  1/i$.Then $\left( {{\lambda _i}{M_i},{q_i}} \right) \to \left( {{R^k},0} \right)$ for any sequence ${\lambda _i} \to \infty $?I think it's wrong,please give counter examples.And $\left( {{\lambda _i}{M_i},{q_i}} \right) \to \left( {{R^k},0} \right)$ for some sequence ${\lambda _i} \to \infty $? The arrow means GromovHausdorff convergence.
