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I am aware of the profound discussion of the relationship between category theory and model theory (e.g. at The n-Category Café) but do wonder why category theory (CT) is not opposed to model theory (MT) from the very beginnings and firstly on a rather superficial level and why it's mostly set theory to play the "natural" counterpart to category theory (e.g. as a foundation of mathematics).

This is just a loose list of superficial analogies (to be taken with at least two grains of salt):

  1. Theories in MT define classes of structures just as categories do in CT: theories describe structures "from the inside", categories describe structures "from the outside".

  2. The relation of "equal up to isomorphism" (between structures/objects) plays a dominant role both in MT and CT.

  3. There are related notions of equivalence of theories (bi-interpretability) and of categories (equivalence of categories). (Thanks to John Goodrick, who clarified this for me.)

  4. Both CT and MT are strongly related to universal algebra:

    MT = universal algebra + logic (Chang/Keisler),

    CT = a language to further abstract away from the standard notions of universal algebra (Tarlecki)

  5. CT and MT both seem to need set theory to provide concrete models (of theories and categories, resp.).

  6. CT and MT can sometimes do without standard set models and provide typical "self-models":

    CT has "hom-set-models" (→ Yoneda)

    MT has "term-models" (→ Henkin).

  7. David Kazdhan's questions concerning MT:

    a) Why is the Model theory so useful in different areas of Mathematics?

    b) Why is it so difficult for mathematicians to learn it ?

    apply equally well to CT. And also his preliminary answer does:

    One difficultly facing one who is trying to learn Model theory is disappearance of the ”natural” distinction between the formalism and the substance.

  8. First-order theories with an infinite model give rise to arbitrarily large models, their class of models thus - being a proper one - corresponds to a large category.

  9. The name of the important model-theoretic concept "categoricity" is striking. [Addendum: "Category theory provides a notion of 'unique specification’ that is related to categoricity in an interesting way, which remains to be clarified." (Steven Awodey in Completeness and Categoricity, Part II: Twentieth-Century Metalogic to Twenty-First-Century Semantics, p. 91)]


The following questions arise naturally:

Question #1: Why are these - admittedly vague - analogies so seldomy discussed in introductory textbooks on both MT and CT (presuming some basic knowledge of the respective other theory)? Even if these analogies are misleading, it would be of help to know the reasons-why early.


Question #2: Which concepts can be translated more or less directly from CT to MT and vice versa? Is there a translation scheme?


Question #3: What are the specific strengths and weaknesses of CT and MT, compared to each other?


Question #4: Can the levels of abstraction of MT and CT be compared?

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Thanks for the link to Kazhdan's notes. I found them very interesting, especially the bits about motivic integration. – Stephen Griffeth Jan 29 at 10:12
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As far as I can see, this is not a real question. – fpqc Jan 29 at 11:40
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-1 for vagueness and unanswerability. – Scott Morrison Jan 29 at 17:02
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I agree. Your last three questions, in particular, have the property that "MT" and "CT" could be replaced by almost anything else and still make sense, and questions should not have this property. – Qiaochu Yuan Jan 29 at 20:00
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I don't understand this argument: in every question about any X and Y you can replace X and Y by something else to get another question that makes sense. – Hans Stricker Jan 29 at 20:33
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2 Answers

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I find this a difficult question to answer, but let me try for your Q1. It could be that some people don't feel comfortable promoting vague analogies, or indeed spending time discussing them. Signal-noise ratio, to be blunt. In particular, your point 9 is not really the sort of thing we want to spend time belabouring. Point 7 does not say much about either model theory or category theory; the fact I can't eat rocks or wood says little about the common material composition of either. Point 5 is again an observation that both lions and tables have legs.

There is, I think common ground between ideas from model theory and categorical frameworks; but this is something where the devil is in the detail and not in the blue sky. 'Tis very like a whale, one might say.

In my Philistine opinion, of course.

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@Yemon: Concerning point 9, let me quote Qiaochu from mathoverflow.net/questions/13089/…: "For example, my understanding is that the origin of the term "torsion" to refer to elements of finite order in group theory comes from topology [...]. Isn't this a wonderful story? Why doesn't it get told until so much later?" Why shouldn't that apply to the (assumed) common origin of "categoricity" in MT and "category" in CT? – Hans Stricker Jan 29 at 10:49
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By the way: I do appreciate your answer, even though I do not agree in every point. (I think it's not like comparing rocks and wood or lions and tables when trying to compare MT and CT.) – Hans Stricker Jan 29 at 11:19
Because it's not important and has next to no mathematical significance aside from being "a neat little thing". The fact that mathematics was one giant but interconnected field preceeds category theory by at least a hundred years. You're never going to learn any mathematics without doing mathematics, and at the moment, you don't appear to be doing mathematics, just gossiping about it. – fpqc Jan 29 at 11:23
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I think part of Yemon's point is that there is probably no common mathematical origin of categoricity and category theory, any more than there is for Baire category. Sometimes your comparisons between subjects seem to verge on the poetic. I should say though that people who say that MT and CT are barely related are dead wrong -- of course they're intimately related, as some posts of yours have indicated. But here's the secret: all mathematical subjects are intimately related: you could stack MT up against, say, differential geometry and still find things to say... – Pete L. Clark Jan 29 at 11:28
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...I think that it is more fruitful to pursue some particular connection between these (or any) two fields than to try to compare one to the other in as general a way as you are trying to do. – Pete L. Clark Jan 29 at 11:31
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Question #3: What are the specific strengths and weaknesses of CT and MT, compared to each other?

CT probably copes better with objects of infinite nature ?

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If I understand your remark correctly, you're pointing out a 'weakness' of first-order logic (e.g. it can't adequately describe Banach spaces). However, model theory is not, or should I say no longer, only about first-order logic (e.g. continuous model theory does adequately handle Banach spaces). – François G. Dorais Jan 29 at 14:05
@Francois: I've never heard of CMT, thanks for the hint. Could you - by the way - explain something about Steven Awodeys saying, that "of course, there is no such field of logic as 'higher-order model theory'". This cannot mean that there is no higher-order model theory, can it? What then does "logic as 'higher-order model theory'" mean, and why "of course"? (It's a bit off-topic, but it was you who legitimately brought "other model theories" into play.) – Hans Stricker Jan 29 at 14:26
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But in any case, surely Shelah's work refutes this view? I'm thinking of all the work on categoricity, Morley's conjecture, many model theorems, etc. etc. etc. Also o-minimality, and classical MT notions of saturation, realizing/omitting types, indiscernibility, etc. etc. etc. – Joel David Hamkins Jan 29 at 14:39
@Joel: which view? – Hans Stricker Jan 29 at 14:43
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@Hans: The view expressed in Dvoryansky's answer, that CT copes better with objects of an infinite nature. The connection between models and cardinality is infinitely explored in MT, in a highly sophisticated illuminating way. Indeed, Morley's Conjecture motivated huge parts of MT. – Joel David Hamkins Jan 29 at 14:47

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