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It is known that $[L^p(0,T;H)]^* = L^q(0,T;H^*)$.

If $p=q=2$ and $H$ is a Hilbert space, is there an easier proof to show that the spaces are isometric? The proof that I know for the general case uses some sort of epsilon argument, but there must be an easier way when we have access to Riesz maps?

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Uhm, I might be underestimating the problem, but I believe that if $H$ is a Hilbert space, then so is $L^2(0,T;H)$. Isometry then follows directly from Riesz Representation Theorem.

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No, this is all there is to it. I wonder why this question has hung around for four days. I just voted to close. – Bill Johnson May 24 '13 at 16:12

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